Hi,
We've got the following setup (all on one host):
Host with Intel 82599EB NIC (SR-IOV enabled).
Portgroup which uses a VLAN.
A VM with SR-IOV passthrough NIC 'connected' to this portgroup.
Another identical VM with a different IP address.
A VM with vmxnet3 NIC connected to this portgroup, for which the uplink is forced to be the PF of the same NIC used in the aforementioned SR-IOV enabled VMs.
All VMs are in the same subnet.
There is network connectivity from the SR-IOV enabled VM to everything but the VM on the vmxnet3 NIC. Adding a host route via the gateway of the subnet is a workaround for this problem, but we prefer not to do that.
So it seems all traffic is sent into the physical switch, which doesn't broadcast the traffic back into the originating port.
Is this expected behaviour?